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Removed by mod
No, I actually read shit.
“Marx did in fact concede that possibility, and he had good grounds for conceding it in regard to Britain and America in the seventies of the last century, when monopoly capitalism and imperialism did not yet exist, and when these countries, owing to the particular conditions of their development, had as yet no developed militarism and bureaucracy.”
If imperialism hadn’t existed in the 1870s, then the definition couldn’t have covered the East India Company in its hayday.