You got me. I was taught incorrectly in high school. I always assumed it was the same thing as different pronouns in those particular cases for, as an example Spanish “se” vs “le”. You’ve made me a better member of the alt write, formerly grammar nazis.
On direct vs indirect object, I’ve heard that before but it doesn’t make sense. None of the other pronouns in English work that way.
Best supporting authority I could find in 15 seconds of looking was Merriam Webster.
You got me. I was taught incorrectly in high school. I always assumed it was the same thing as different pronouns in those particular cases for, as an example Spanish “se” vs “le”. You’ve made me a better member of the alt write, formerly grammar nazis.